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Why does the bible gives two different accounts of how Jesus is traced back to David thus completing that requirement to be the messiah? I find this weird since A: they both use Joseph as the decendent of David when he wasn't even Jesus's biological father and B: Jews use the mother for genealogy purposes. That's why if a Jew marries a non-Jew then their kids will only be Jewish if the mother is a Jew. So why do you think there are two different stories? I mean if both Matthew and Luke just made it up to give Jesus more credibility for being the messiah then you'd think they would have at least gotten their stories straight first, right?
jjambo2, that's not true. Both accounts go through Joseph.
Luke 3:23-31

David
Nathan
Mattatha
Menna
Melea
Eliakim
Jonam
Joseph
Judah
Simeon
Levi
Matthat
Jorim
Eliezer
Joshua
Er
Elmadam
Cosam
Addi
Melki
Neri
Shealtiel
Zerubbabel
Rhesa
Joanan
Joda
Josech
Semein
Mattathias
Maath
Naggae
Esli
Nahum
Amos
Mattathias
Joseph
Jannai
Melchi
Levi
Matthat
Heli
Joseph
Jesus

Matt 1:7-16

David
Solomon
Rehoboam
Abijah
Asa
Jehoshaphat
Jehoram
-
-
-
Uzziah
Jotham
Ahaz
Hezekiah
Manasseh
Amon
Josiah
-
Jeconiah
Shealtiel
Zerubbabel
Abiud
Eliakim
Azor
Zadok
Achim
Eliud
Eleazar
Matthan
Jacob
Joseph
Jesus
craig b, read above. If anything Matthew tells from the mother seeing as how it says "Jacob, and Joseph, who married Mary, the mother of Jesus." Whereas Luke clearly states son of Joseph. And I don't consider Luke or Matt to be God, but maybe you do.