question for Jewish scholars: I just read a post that said the Jewish law was...

[jimbobthephonecian]

...never meant for anyone but Jews? In Exodus 12:38 when the Israelites left Egypt it says,"...a mixed multitude went up also with them.". In Exodus 12:48, "And when a stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the Passover to the Eternal...let him come near and keep it...and he shall be as one born in the land.", verse 49,"One law shall be tohim that is homeborn, and unto the stranger that sojourns among you." And in Isaiah 56:2-3, "Blessed is the man that keep the sabbath. Neither let the son of the stranger, that has joined himself to the Lord, speak, saying, the Lord has utterly separated me from his people." and then in verse 7,"Even them will I bring to My holy mountain, and make them joyful in My house of prayer: their burnt offerings and their sacrifices shall be accepted upon Mine altar; for Mine house shall be called an house of prayer for all people."
I know these might not be the best translations. Is that the problem or am I misinterpreting something here.