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Old 03-25-2008, 10:57 PM
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Is faith never legitimate within a philosophy primarily based on reason?

Plainly, there must be realities that are not accessible to our five senses, however technologically enhanced they may be. Is it illegitimate to respond with faith to those aspects of existence for which no evidence can be gathered?
I have to disagree with you Silas. Here's why. Suppose you were a being that only had one sense. Hearing for example. Without the other senses, things we take for granted like sunlight, color, texture, and the very nature of the environment would be completely inaccessible to you. Not only that, but you would be unable to gather any evidence of these things at all. Is it really so outrageous to suppose that there are realities that are inaccessible to our five senses?
So the question is, is it reasonable to address that which is unaccessible to our senses with faith?
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Old 03-25-2008, 10:58 PM
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I don't think that there are that many, if any, realities that are not accessible through our five senses. To which realities are you referring? In answer to your question w/o answer to my question, yes, it would be unreasonable to have faith without reason/evidence.
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